________ refers to work that is repetitive, simplified, and fragmented.
a. Occupation simplification
b. Labor simplification
c. Vocation simplification
d. Job simplification
Friday, July 25, 2014
Chapter 08 Exam Question 16
Surveys have found that ________ percent of employees point to their boss as the worst and most stressful part of their job.
a. 25 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 75 percent
d. 99 percent
a. 25 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 75 percent
d. 99 percent
Chapter 08 Exam Question 15
_________ involves a workplace environment that is hostile, degrading, or insulting toward one particular gender.
a. Sexual harassment
b. Sexual discrimination
c. Gender harassment
d. Gender discrimination
a. Sexual harassment
b. Sexual discrimination
c. Gender harassment
d. Gender discrimination
Chapter 08 Exam Question 14
Which of Peck's concepts focuses upon learning that it is to one's advantage to invest emotion in many people or activities?
a. Cathectic flexibility
b. Mental flexibility
c. Socializing in human relationships
d. Valuing wisdom
a. Cathectic flexibility
b. Mental flexibility
c. Socializing in human relationships
d. Valuing wisdom
Chapter 08 Exam Question 13
Which of Peck's concepts focuses upon individuals learning to value knowledge gained from experience in dealing with many different complex problems?
a. Cathectic flexibility
b. Mental flexibility
c. Socializing in human relationships
d. Valuing wisdom
a. Cathectic flexibility
b. Mental flexibility
c. Socializing in human relationships
d. Valuing wisdom
Chapter 08 Exam Question 12
Which of Peck's concepts focuses upon people remaining open and receptive to learning?
a. Cathectic flexibility
b. Mental flexibility
c. Socializing in human relationships
d. Valuing wisdom
a. Cathectic flexibility
b. Mental flexibility
c. Socializing in human relationships
d. Valuing wisdom
Chapter 08 Exam Question 11
Which of Peck's concepts focuses upon people coming to devalue sexuality as a basis of interpersonal relations?
a. Cathectic flexibility
b. Mental flexibility
c. Socializing in human relationships
d. Valuing wisdom
a. Cathectic flexibility
b. Mental flexibility
c. Socializing in human relationships
d. Valuing wisdom
Chapter 08 Exam Question 10
All organs begin to decrease in weight beginning in the 50s.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 08 Exam Question 8
Experts and novices differ in their ability to automatically and fluently retrieve information from memory.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 08 Exam Question 7
Arteriosclerosis is commonly called 'hardening of the arteries.'
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 08 Exam Question 6
Osteoporosis is an inflammation of a joint area between bone junctions.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Monday, July 14, 2014
Chapter 08 Exam Question 5
The skin changes in texture, composition, and appearance during middle age.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 08 Exam Question 3
Middle adulthood is sometimes likened to adolescence because of the interpersonal conflict and inner turmoil that can sometimes occur in both of these periods.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 08 Exam Question 2
Marital satisfaction tends to increase during middle adulthood.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 08 Exam Question 1
Fluid intelligence involves cognitive skills that are acquired through educational experiences.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 07 Exam Question 47
The loss of hearing at high-frequency tones is referred to as _________.
a. Presbyopia
b. Presbycusis
c. Accommodation
d. Audible range deficiency
a. Presbyopia
b. Presbycusis
c. Accommodation
d. Audible range deficiency
Chapter 07 Exam Question 46
Individuals begin to notice deficiencies in distance perception around what age?
a. 25 - 30 years of age
b. 30 - 35 years of age
c. 35 - 40 years of age
d. 40 - 45 years of age
a. 25 - 30 years of age
b. 30 - 35 years of age
c. 35 - 40 years of age
d. 40 - 45 years of age
Chapter 07 Exam Question 45
_________ is an inflammation of the gums and bone tissue surrounding teeth.
a. Periodontal disease
b. Dentition inflammation disease
c. Ossification and tissue disease
d. Fissure abscess disease
a. Periodontal disease
b. Dentition inflammation disease
c. Ossification and tissue disease
d. Fissure abscess disease
Chapter 07 Exam Question 44
People are at their peak muscular strength between what ages?
a. 10 - 20 years of age
b. 20 - 30 years of age
c. 30 - 40 years of age
d. 40 - 50 years of age
a. 10 - 20 years of age
b. 20 - 30 years of age
c. 30 - 40 years of age
d. 40 - 50 years of age
Monday, July 7, 2014
Chapter 07 Exam Question 43
This type of personality is prone to excessive levels of stress, is competitive, and is achievement-oriented.
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
Chapter 07 Exam Question 42
________ are events that can cause stress.
a. Strainers
b. Hassles
c. Anxietors
d. Stressors
a. Strainers
b. Hassles
c. Anxietors
d. Stressors
Chapter 07 Exam Question 41
This type of personality represses their emotions and stress.
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
Chapter 07 Exam Question 40
Which of the following does NOT influence one's reaction to stressful life events?
a. Personality
b. Multiple stressful events
c. Interpretation of life events
d. Sexual orientation
a. Personality
b. Multiple stressful events
c. Interpretation of life events
d. Sexual orientation
Chapter 07 Exam Question 39
In men, fat tends to accumulate in the _____ area.
a. Abdomen
b. Hips
c. Thighs
d. Chest
a. Abdomen
b. Hips
c. Thighs
d. Chest
Chapter 07 Exam Question 38
________ is defined as any behavior that detrimentally effects health or increases the likelihood of disease.
a. Perilous behavior
b. Dicey behavior
c. Risky behavior
d. Chancy behavior
a. Perilous behavior
b. Dicey behavior
c. Risky behavior
d. Chancy behavior
Chapter 07 Exam Question 37
The National College Health Risk Behavior found that ________ of young adults drove after drinking alcohol in the last month.
a. 12 percent
b. 27 percent
c. 34 percent
d. 51 percent
a. 12 percent
b. 27 percent
c. 34 percent
d. 51 percent
Chapter 07 Exam Question 36
The National College Health Risk Behavior found that ________ of young adults rarely, if ever, used seat belts.
a. 2 percent
b. 10 percent
c. 17 percent
d. 30 percent
a. 2 percent
b. 10 percent
c. 17 percent
d. 30 percent
Chapter 07 Exam Question 35
The National College Health Risk Behavior found that ________ of young adults had six or more sexual partners during their life.
a. 15 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 35 percent
d. 45 percent
a. 15 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 35 percent
d. 45 percent
Chapter 07 Exam Question 34
The National College Health Risk Behavior found that only _________ of young adults used a condom during their last sexual intercourse.
a. 10 percent
b. 19 percent
c. 30 percent
d. 41 percent
a. 10 percent
b. 19 percent
c. 30 percent
d. 41 percent
Chapter 07 Exam Question 33
How many diseases are now spread through sexual activity?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
Chapter 07 Exam Question 32
In the U.S., over _________ people have an STD that is incurable.
a. 10 million
b. 35 million
c. 50 million
d. 65 million
a. 10 million
b. 35 million
c. 50 million
d. 65 million
Chapter 07 Exam Question 31
Approximately how many new cases of herpes occur each year in the U.S.?
a. 100,000
b. 550,000
c. 1 million
d. 10 million
a. 100,000
b. 550,000
c. 1 million
d. 10 million
Friday, June 27, 2014
Chapter 07 Exam Question 30
Approximately what percentage of American adults suffers from depression?
a. 5 percent
b. 10 percent
c. 15 percent
d. 20 percent
a. 5 percent
b. 10 percent
c. 15 percent
d. 20 percent
Chapter 07 Exam Question 29
What percentage of college students reports having seriously considered committing suicide?
a. 10 percent
b. 15 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 25 percent
a. 10 percent
b. 15 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 25 percent
Chapter 07 Exam Question 28
What is the median age at which depression manifests?
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
Chapter 07 Exam Question 27
What percentage of married couples in the U.S. is considered infertile?
a. 3 percent
b. 7 percent
c. 11 percent
d. 22 percent
a. 3 percent
b. 7 percent
c. 11 percent
d. 22 percent
Chapter 07 Exam Question 26
_______ is defined as 'the intellectual aspects of learning style that represent culturally attuned ways of perceiving, organizing and evaluating information'.
a. Ethos style
b. Cognitive style
c. Discovery style
d. Perceptual style
a. Ethos style
b. Cognitive style
c. Discovery style
d. Perceptual style
Chapter 07 Exam Question 25
Which of the following does NOT create an environment that promotes motivation?
a. Uses direct teaching, with a traditional lecture format
b. Material and assignments are appropriate for the level of knowledge and skills of the learner
c. Incorporates social opportunities in which an individual can contribute knowledge
d. Learners can see the usefulness and applicability of the material they are being asked to learn
a. Uses direct teaching, with a traditional lecture format
b. Material and assignments are appropriate for the level of knowledge and skills of the learner
c. Incorporates social opportunities in which an individual can contribute knowledge
d. Learners can see the usefulness and applicability of the material they are being asked to learn
Chapter 07 Exam Question 24
In which phase of self-regulated learning does a person decide if changes need to be made in their approach to the learning task and make necessary adaptations?
a. Planning phase
b. Monitoring phase
c. Control phase
d. Reflection phase
a. Planning phase
b. Monitoring phase
c. Control phase
d. Reflection phase
Chapter 07 Exam Question 23
In which phase of self-regulated learning is a person aware of what they are learning and thinking and mindful of time management?
a. Planning phase
b. Monitoring phase
c. Control phase
d. Reflection phase
a. Planning phase
b. Monitoring phase
c. Control phase
d. Reflection phase
Chapter 07 Exam Question 22
The purpose of this type of text message is to give a quick and brief greeting.
a. Information-practical orientation
b. Informational-relational orientation
c. Salutory orientation
d. Friendship maintenance orientation
a. Information-practical orientation
b. Informational-relational orientation
c. Salutory orientation
d. Friendship maintenance orientation
Chapter 07 Exam Question 21
The purpose of this type of text message is to send messages such as thanks, support, and apologies
a. Information-practical orientation
b. Informational-relational orientation
c. Salutory orientation
d. Friendship maintenance orientation
a. Information-practical orientation
b. Informational-relational orientation
c. Salutory orientation
d. Friendship maintenance orientation
Friday, June 13, 2014
Chapter 07 Exam Question 20
The purpose of this type of text message is to make a personal request.
a. Information-practical orientation
b. Informational-relational orientation
c. Salutory orientation
d. Friendship maintenance orientation
a. Information-practical orientation
b. Informational-relational orientation
c. Salutory orientation
d. Friendship maintenance orientation
Chapter 07 Exam Question 19
___________________ spend less time online and visit fewer sites than European Americans.
a. African Americans
b. Asian Americans
c. Hispanics
d. Native Americans
a. African Americans
b. Asian Americans
c. Hispanics
d. Native Americans
Chapter 07 Exam Question 18
Which of the big five personality traits can be conceptualized as the degree to which a person is comfortable with variety, autonomy, and change?
a. Agreeableness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Extraversion
d. Openness
a. Agreeableness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Extraversion
d. Openness
Chapter 07 Exam Question 17
Which of the big five personality traits can be conceptualized as the degree to which a person values and/or needs organization, precision, and self-discipline?
a. Agreeableness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Extraversion
d. Openness
a. Agreeableness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Extraversion
d. Openness
Chapter 07 Exam Question 16
Which of the big five personality traits can be conceptualized as the degree to which a person is outgoing, demonstrative, and fun-loving?
a. Agreeableness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Extraversion
d. Openness
a. Agreeableness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Extraversion
d. Openness
Chapter 07 Exam Question 15
Which of the big five personality traits can be conceptualized as the degree to which a person is trusting, giving, and kind?
a. Agreeableness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Extraversion
d. Openness
a. Agreeableness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Extraversion
d. Openness
Chapter 07 Exam Question 14
Which of the big five personality traits can be conceptualized as the degree to which a person is insecure, emotional, and anxious?
a. Agreeableness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Extraversion
d. Neuroticism
a. Agreeableness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Extraversion
d. Neuroticism
Chapter 07 Exam Question 13
What percentage of young adults fall into the in-time leavers pattern of leaving the nest?
a. 20 percent
b. 35 percent
c. 55 percent
d. 70 percent
a. 20 percent
b. 35 percent
c. 55 percent
d. 70 percent
Chapter 07 Exam Question 12
Approximately what percentage of young adults fall into the returner category of leaving the nest?
a. 4 percent
b. 11 percent
c. 16 percent
d. 22 percent
a. 4 percent
b. 11 percent
c. 16 percent
d. 22 percent
Chapter 07 Exam Question 11
Which of the following is NOT an outcome associated with cohabitation prior to marriage?
a. A happier marriage
b. Increased rates of infidelity
c. Lower marital satisfaction
d. Increased rates of domestic violence
a. A happier marriage
b. Increased rates of infidelity
c. Lower marital satisfaction
d. Increased rates of domestic violence
Chapter 07 Exam Question 10
The cultural meaning of maturity is completed development.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 07 Exam Question 9
Until recent historical times, there were only three stages in the life-span: prenatal, childhood, and adulthood.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Thursday, June 12, 2014
Chapter 07 Exam Question 8
Approximately 30 percent of American freshman in college report experiencing substantial stress.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 07 Exam Question 7
Presbycusis is a condition in which individuals have a difficult time accurately perceiving objects that are close.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 07 Exam Question 6
The most frequent purpose for text messaging is friendship maintenance.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 07 Exam Question 5
Only 15 percent of young adults eat five or more servings of vegetables and fruits daily.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 07 Exam Question 4
Psychopathology has increased for young adults in recent years.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 07 Exam Question 3
Ostracism is the purposeful ignoring and exclusion of others.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 07 Exam Question 2
Generation Y individuals are similar to previous generations in their career expectations and desires.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 07 Exam Question 1
There are no known negative outcomes associated with cohabitation.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 06 Exam Question 46
The developmental event in which the sexual organs become functional
a. Adolescence
b. Adolescent growth spurt
c. Puberty
d. Coming of age
a. Adolescence
b. Adolescent growth spurt
c. Puberty
d. Coming of age
Chapter 06 Exam Question 45
The perspective that developmental changes are the result of genetic programming
a. Maturationism
b. Establishment
c. Completionism
d. Geno-ripening
a. Maturationism
b. Establishment
c. Completionism
d. Geno-ripening
Chapter 06 Exam Question 44
The trend, inferred from observation of several generations, toward achieving sexual maturity at earlier ages than in the past
a. Maturing trend
b. Worldly trend
c. Maturation trend
d. Secular trend
a. Maturing trend
b. Worldly trend
c. Maturation trend
d. Secular trend
Wednesday, June 11, 2014
Chapter 06 Exam Question 43
When a person experiences puberty earlier or later than most of his or her same-age peers, it is referred to as ________.
a. Inconvenient-time
b. Off-time
c. Mismatch-time
d. Unpunctual-time
a. Inconvenient-time
b. Off-time
c. Mismatch-time
d. Unpunctual-time
Chapter 06 Exam Question 42
The psychophysiologic stage is which stage for the development of understanding illness?
a. Fourth
b. Fifth
c. Sixth
d. Seventh
a. Fourth
b. Fifth
c. Sixth
d. Seventh
Chapter 06 Exam Question 41
Which eating disorder involves emotional and body image disturbances that lead to an intake of large amounts of food that is then purged?
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Body image nervosa
c. Binge-purge nervosa
d. Bulimia nervosa
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Body image nervosa
c. Binge-purge nervosa
d. Bulimia nervosa
Chapter 06 Exam Question 40
The physiologic stage is which stage for the development of understanding illness?
a. Fourth
b. Fifth
c. Sixth
d. Seventh
a. Fourth
b. Fifth
c. Sixth
d. Seventh
Chapter 06 Exam Question 39
Which eating disorder involves complex emotional and body image disturbances that lead to an obsession with limiting dietary intake in order to control body weight?
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Body image nervosa
c. Obsessive nervosa
d. Bulimia nervosa
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Body image nervosa
c. Obsessive nervosa
d. Bulimia nervosa
Chapter 06 Exam Question 38
What is the fourth stage of Piaget's cognitive development called?
a. Preoperational
b. Formal operational
c. Sensorimotor
d. Concrete operational
a. Preoperational
b. Formal operational
c. Sensorimotor
d. Concrete operational
Chapter 06 Exam Question 37
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of thinking in the fourth stage of Piaget's cognitive development?
a. Deductive reasoning
b. Inductive reasoning
c. Transductive reasoning
d. Hypothetical reasoning
a. Deductive reasoning
b. Inductive reasoning
c. Transductive reasoning
d. Hypothetical reasoning
Chapter 06 Exam Question 36
Reasoning from specific facts to general conclusions
a. Deductive reasoning
b. Inductive reasoning
c. Transductive reasoning
d. Hypothetical reasoning
a. Deductive reasoning
b. Inductive reasoning
c. Transductive reasoning
d. Hypothetical reasoning
Chapter 06 Exam Question 35
Reasoning beginning with the big picture and then developing conclusions
a. Deductive reasoning
b. Inductive reasoning
c. Hypothetical reasoning
d. Scientific-inductive reasoning
a. Deductive reasoning
b. Inductive reasoning
c. Hypothetical reasoning
d. Scientific-inductive reasoning
Chapter 06 Exam Question 34
Reasoning that pertains to the ability to think and reason about ideas in the abstract
a. Deductive reasoning
b. Inductive reasoning
c. Hypothetical reasoning
d. Scientific-inductive reasoning
a. Deductive reasoning
b. Inductive reasoning
c. Hypothetical reasoning
d. Scientific-inductive reasoning
Chapter 06 Exam Question 33
Reasoning that starts with an observation or thought that generates a hypothesis about something
a. Deductive reasoning
b. Inductive reasoning
c. Hypothetical reasoning
d. Scientific-inductive reasoning
a. Deductive reasoning
b. Inductive reasoning
c. Hypothetical reasoning
d. Scientific-inductive reasoning
Tuesday, June 10, 2014
Chapter 06 Exam Question 32
The level of moral reasoning which is based upon internalized and personalized values
a. Preconventional level
b. Conventional level
c. Postconventional level
d. None of the above
a. Preconventional level
b. Conventional level
c. Postconventional level
d. None of the above
Chapter 06 Exam Question 31
The level of moral reasoning which is based upon physical consequences and the power of those in authority
a. Preconventional level
b. Conventional level
c. Postconventional level
d. None of the above
a. Preconventional level
b. Conventional level
c. Postconventional level
d. None of the above
Chapter 06 Exam Question 30
The level of moral reasoning which is based upon conformity to the rules of society
a. Preconventional level
b. Conventional level
c. Postconventional level
d. None of the above
a. Preconventional level
b. Conventional level
c. Postconventional level
d. None of the above
Chapter 06 Exam Question 29
A large mixed-sex group of older children or adolescents who have similar values and attitudes and are known by a common label
a. Cliques
b. Groups
c. Social circle
d. Crowd
a. Cliques
b. Groups
c. Social circle
d. Crowd
Chapter 06 Exam Question 28
A small group of friends that is similar in appearance, demographics, and activities
a. Clique
b. Crew
c. Social circle
d. Crowd
a. Clique
b. Crew
c. Social circle
d. Crowd
Chapter 06 Exam Question 27
A mindset that is always suspect of the intentions of others
a. Aggressional attributional bias
b. Hostile attributional bias
c. Adverse attributional bias
d. Antagonistic attributional bias
a. Aggressional attributional bias
b. Hostile attributional bias
c. Adverse attributional bias
d. Antagonistic attributional bias
Chapter 06 Exam Question 26
The inability to commit to any role or idea of direction for one's life
a. Identity confusion
b. Role confusion
c. Individuation
d. Identity foreclosure
a. Identity confusion
b. Role confusion
c. Individuation
d. Identity foreclosure
Chapter 06 Exam Question 25
The disjointed, fragmented notion of self that results from an inability to integrate the various aspects of personality into a unified whole
a. Identity confusion
b. Role confusion
c. Individuation
d. Identity foreclosure
a. Identity confusion
b. Role confusion
c. Individuation
d. Identity foreclosure
Chapter 06 Exam Question 24
The idea that individuals progress through specific stages which reflect the evolution of the human species
a. Darwinism
b. Progression
c. Recapitulation
d. Reiteration
a. Darwinism
b. Progression
c. Recapitulation
d. Reiteration
Chapter 06 Exam Question 23
Right before the onset of adolescence, there is a second period of overproduction of gray matter in what area of the brain?
a. Occipital lobe
b. Pre-frontal cortex
c. Hypothalamus
d. Medulla
a. Occipital lobe
b. Pre-frontal cortex
c. Hypothalamus
d. Medulla
Chapter 06 Exam Question 22
Which major organ system decreases in size during adolescence?
a. Lymphoid system
b. Respiratory system
c. Cardiovascular system
d. Peripheral nervous system
a. Lymphoid system
b. Respiratory system
c. Cardiovascular system
d. Peripheral nervous system
Monday, June 9, 2014
Chapter 06 Exam Question 21
Which of the following is NOT an outcome associated with late puberty in girls?
a. Thinness
b. Lowered future academic goals
c. Increased future academic goals
d. Increased conflict with parents
a. Thinness
b. Lowered future academic goals
c. Increased future academic goals
d. Increased conflict with parents
Chapter 06 Exam Question 20
Which of the following is NOT an outcome associated with early puberty in girls?
a. Reproductive system cancers
b. Suicide attempts
c. Obesity
d. Earlier marriage
a. Reproductive system cancers
b. Suicide attempts
c. Obesity
d. Earlier marriage
Chapter 06 Exam Question 19
Which of the following is a typical characteristic of an adolescent struggling with anorexia nervosa?
a. Slightly overweight
b. Physically unattractive
c. Unstable family
d. Intelligent
a. Slightly overweight
b. Physically unattractive
c. Unstable family
d. Intelligent
Chapter 06 Exam Question 18
What is the approximate rate of adolescents who struggle with bulimia nervosa?
a. One out of 100 adolescents
b. Three out of 100 adolescents
c. 7 out of 100 adolescents
d. 50 out of 1,000 adolescents
a. One out of 100 adolescents
b. Three out of 100 adolescents
c. 7 out of 100 adolescents
d. 50 out of 1,000 adolescents
Chapter 06 Exam Question 17
Based on research by the CDC, approximately what percentage of high school students have had an alcoholic drink within the past month?
a. 15 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 35 percent
d. 45 percent
a. 15 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 35 percent
d. 45 percent
Chapter 06 Exam Question 16
A national survey found that what percentage of high school students had tried marijuana?
a. 17 percent
b. 26 percent
c. 38 percent
d. 42 percent
a. 17 percent
b. 26 percent
c. 38 percent
d. 42 percent
Chapter 06 Exam Question 15
Worldwide, adolescents and people in their early twenties account for ________ percent of all new HIV infections.
a. 10 percent
b. 15 percent
c. 30 percent
d. 45 percent
a. 10 percent
b. 15 percent
c. 30 percent
d. 45 percent
Chapter 06 Exam Question 14
When a person demonstrates unquestioning obedience to those in authority, what stage of moral development are they in?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
Chapter 06 Exam Question 13
When a person chooses to behave well because they will receive some personal profit or reward, what stage of moral development are the in?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
Chapter 06 Exam Question 12
What percentage of high school students uses computers?
a. 76 percent
b. 83 percent
c. 97 percent
d. 100 percent
a. 76 percent
b. 83 percent
c. 97 percent
d. 100 percent
Chapter 06 Exam Question 11
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Students sometimes learn to use the internet before they have learned the difference between right and wrong.
b. As access to home computers increases, standardized test scores decrease.
c. Computers may distract adolescents from their studies.
d. Researchers have concluded what the long-term effects of computer use on development are.
a. Students sometimes learn to use the internet before they have learned the difference between right and wrong.
b. As access to home computers increases, standardized test scores decrease.
c. Computers may distract adolescents from their studies.
d. Researchers have concluded what the long-term effects of computer use on development are.
Chapter 06 Exam Question 10
The brain shows significant structural changes right before and during adolescence.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Thursday, June 5, 2014
Chapter 06 Exam Question 9
The physical changes that take place during puberty are orchestrated by interactions between the central nervous system and the glands of the endocrine system.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 06 Exam Question 8
Both gray and white matter show similar patterns of brain development during adolescence.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 06 Exam Question 6
Less than half of all U.S. high school students have engaged in sexual intercourse.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 06 Exam Question 5
Only females suffer negative outcomes with off-time puberty.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 06 Exam Question 4
Those between the ages of 15 to 24 years acquire nearly half of all new STDs.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 06 Exam Question 3
Estrogen consumed as birth control pills and excreted in urine has been found in drinking water and may cause early puberty in girls.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 06 Exam Question 2
Kohlberg proposed that there may be gender differences in how people use moral reasoning.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 06 Exam Questions 1
Emotional regulation improves in adolescence with development of the occipital lobe of the brain.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 05 Exam Question 46
The ability to bend or move the body in various directions is referred to as ________.
a. Strength
b. Flexibility
c. Impulsion
d. Precision
a. Strength
b. Flexibility
c. Impulsion
d. Precision
Chapter 05 Exam Question 45
The ability to exert force is referred to as __________.
a. Strength
b. Flexibility
c. Impulsion
d. Precision
a. Strength
b. Flexibility
c. Impulsion
d. Precision
Wednesday, June 4, 2014
Chapter 05 Exam Question 44
The dexterity and accuracy of movements is referred to as _____________.
a. Strength
b. Flexibility
c. Impulsion
d. Precision
a. Strength
b. Flexibility
c. Impulsion
d. Precision
Chapter 05 Exam Question 43
The rate at which the body movement begins from a stationary position is referred to as __________.
a. Strength
b. Flexibility
c. Impulsion
d. Precision
a. Strength
b. Flexibility
c. Impulsion
d. Precision
Chapter 05 Exam Question 42
The ability to maintain equilibrium and stability is referred to as _________.
a. Coordination
b. Speed
c. Rhythm
d. Balance
a. Coordination
b. Speed
c. Rhythm
d. Balance
Chapter 05 Exam Question 41
The ability to use various muscle groups together to accomplish specific actions is referred to as ___________.
a. Coordination
b. Rhythm
c. Impulsion
d. Stability
a. Coordination
b. Rhythm
c. Impulsion
d. Stability
Chapter 05 Exam Question 40
The rate of movement once the body is in action is referred to as ________.
a. Impulsion
b. Speed
c. Rhythm
d. Coordination
a. Impulsion
b. Speed
c. Rhythm
d. Coordination
Chapter 05 Exam Question 39
The 5 C's trait that refers to an individual's skills, abilities, and proficiency within a specific domain ___________.
a. Confidence
b. Character
c. Competence
d. Capability
a. Confidence
b. Character
c. Competence
d. Capability
Chapter 05 Exam Question 38
The 5 C's trait that refers to having certainty in one's ability ___________.
a. Confidence
b. Character
c. Competence
d. Conviction
a. Confidence
b. Character
c. Competence
d. Conviction
Chapter 05 Exam Question 37
The 5 C's trait that refers to having a moral compass and integrity __________.
a. Courage
b. Character
c. Chivalry
d. Conviction
a. Courage
b. Character
c. Chivalry
d. Conviction
Chapter 05 Exam Question 36
The 5 C's trait that refers to an individual's relationships with others and feelings as though one belongs ___________.
a. Clique
b. Competence
c. Caring
d. Connections
a. Clique
b. Competence
c. Caring
d. Connections
Chapter 05 Exam Question 35
The 5 C's trait that refers to having empathy for others __________.
a. Concern
b. Compassionate
c. Considerate
d. Caring
a. Concern
b. Compassionate
c. Considerate
d. Caring
Chapter 05 Exam Question 34
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of oppositional defiant disorder?
a. Deviant behavior
b. Self-injury
c. Disobedience
d. Hostility
a. Deviant behavior
b. Self-injury
c. Disobedience
d. Hostility
Friday, May 30, 2014
Chapter 05 Exam Question 33
In which of Piaget's stage of cognitive development are children typically during middle childhood?
a. Sensorimotor stage
b. Preoperational stage
c. Concrete operational stage
d. Formal operational stage
a. Sensorimotor stage
b. Preoperational stage
c. Concrete operational stage
d. Formal operational stage
Chapter 05 Exam Question 32
The cognitive ability that allows a school-age child to attend to more than one aspect simultaneously in performing classification operations
a. Horizontal decalage
b. Cognitive conceit
c. Seriation
d. Decentering
a. Horizontal decalage
b. Cognitive conceit
c. Seriation
d. Decentering
Chapter 05 Exam Question 31
A characteristic of thought in middle childhood in which individuals perceive situations and people in black-and-white, all-or-nothing
a. Horizontal decalage
b. Cognitive conceit
c. Seriation
d. Decentering
a. Horizontal decalage
b. Cognitive conceit
c. Seriation
d. Decentering
Chapter 05 Exam Question 30
Unevenness in applying an understanding of conservation problems across different contexts
a. Horizontal decalage
b. Cognitive conceit
c. Seriation
d. Decentering
a. Horizontal decalage
b. Cognitive conceit
c. Seriation
d. Decentering
Chapter 05 Exam Question 29
A cognitive ability that allows objects to be scaled according to various dimensions (e.g., large to small)
a. Horizontal decalage
b. Cognitive conceit
c. Seriation
d. Decentering
a. Horizontal decalage
b. Cognitive conceit
c. Seriation
d. Decentering
Chapter 05 Exam Question 28
The ability to be aware of and understand the changes occurring in one's own cognitive processes is referred to as ______________.
a. Metamemory
b. Metaconsciousness
c. Metacognition
d. Meta-linguistic awareness
a. Metamemory
b. Metaconsciousness
c. Metacognition
d. Meta-linguistic awareness
Chapter 05 Exam Question 27
An awareness of the extent of one's own memory is referred to as __________.
a. Metamemory
b. Metaconsciousness
c. Metacognition
d. Meta-language awareness
a. Metamemory
b. Metaconsciousness
c. Metacognition
d. Meta-language awareness
Chapter 05 Exam Question 26
The capacity to analyze, study, and understand language is referred to as __________.
a. Meta-communication awareness
b. Metaconsciouness
c. Meta-language awareness
d. Meta-linguistic awareness
a. Meta-communication awareness
b. Metaconsciouness
c. Meta-language awareness
d. Meta-linguistic awareness
Chapter 05 Exam Question 25
The type of intelligence that involves the mental abilities in the semantics, syntax, and overall expression of language
a. Expressive intelligence
b. Linguistic intelligence
c. Language intelligence
d. Communicative intelligence
a. Expressive intelligence
b. Linguistic intelligence
c. Language intelligence
d. Communicative intelligence
Chapter 05 Exam Question 24
The type of intelligence that involves mental abilities in pattern recognition, relationships, reasoning, and mathematical operations
a. Logical-mathematical intelligence
b. Spatial intelligence
c. Reasoning-spatial intelligence
d. Rational-mathematical intelligence
a. Logical-mathematical intelligence
b. Spatial intelligence
c. Reasoning-spatial intelligence
d. Rational-mathematical intelligence
Chapter 05 Exam Question 23
The type of intelligence that involves mental abilities in perception of objects and the ability to mentally transform and manipulate these objects
a. Reasoning-spatial intelligence
b. Spatial intelligence
c. Perceptual intelligence
d. Symbolic representation intelligence
a. Reasoning-spatial intelligence
b. Spatial intelligence
c. Perceptual intelligence
d. Symbolic representation intelligence
Chapter 05 Exam Question 22
The type of intelligence that involves the mental ability to recognize plant and animal life in the environment and the relationships and interconnections between these species
a. Environmental intelligence
b. Ecosystem intelligence
c. Green intelligence
d. Naturalistic intelligence
a. Environmental intelligence
b. Ecosystem intelligence
c. Green intelligence
d. Naturalistic intelligence
Chapter 05 Exam Question 21
Which of Janson and Mathiesen's temperament profiles involved high sociability, high activity level, high emotionality, and low shyness?
a. Undercontrolled
b. Confident
c. Inhibited
d. Uneasy
a. Undercontrolled
b. Confident
c. Inhibited
d. Uneasy
Thursday, May 29, 2014
Chapter 05 Exam Question 20
Which of Janson and Mathiesen's temperament profiles involved moderately high shyness, moderately high emotionality, moderate sociability, and moderate activity level?
a. Undercontrolled
b. Confident
c. Inhibited
d. Uneasy
a. Undercontrolled
b. Confident
c. Inhibited
d. Uneasy
Chapter 05 Exam Question 19
Which of Janson and Mathiesen's temperament profiles involved low shyness, low emotionality, high activity level, and moderate sociability?
a. Undercontrolled
b. Confident
c. Inhibited
d. Uneasy
a. Undercontrolled
b. Confident
c. Inhibited
d. Uneasy
Chapter 05 Exam Question 18
Which of Janson and Mathiesen's temperament profiles is correlated with the highest degree of externalizing behavior problems?
a. Undercontrolled
b. Confident
c. Inhibited
d. Uneasy
a. Undercontrolled
b. Confident
c. Inhibited
d. Uneasy
Chapter 05 Exam Question 17
Which of the following is seen in play during middle childhood?
a. It increases in competitiveness
b. They prefer sport activities with clear winners and losers.
c. They enjoy television and computer use.
d. There is a decline in rough-and-tumble play.
a. It increases in competitiveness
b. They prefer sport activities with clear winners and losers.
c. They enjoy television and computer use.
d. There is a decline in rough-and-tumble play.
Chapter 05 Exam Question 16
Which of the following is NOT a strategy parents should use to assist children in developing a sense of industry?
a. Focus on children's accomplishments
b. Avoid excessive attention that highlights weaknesses and limitations
c. Allow children to develop their own rules and punishments
d. Promote increasing abilities for children to develop self-control
a. Focus on children's accomplishments
b. Avoid excessive attention that highlights weaknesses and limitations
c. Allow children to develop their own rules and punishments
d. Promote increasing abilities for children to develop self-control
Chapter 05 Exam Question 15
What percentage of children in the U.S. can expect to have a single-parent family experience at some time?
a. 30 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 70 percent
d. 80 percent
a. 30 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 70 percent
d. 80 percent
Chapter 05 Exam Question 14
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Divorce has little impact on children.
b. Daughters struggle in their relationship with their mom more than sons.
c. Sons struggle in their relationship with mom more than daughters.
d. Sons and daughters are equal in their struggle.
a. Divorce has little impact on children.
b. Daughters struggle in their relationship with their mom more than sons.
c. Sons struggle in their relationship with mom more than daughters.
d. Sons and daughters are equal in their struggle.
Chapter 05 Exam Question 13
Which of the following is NOT a positive potential outcome of sibling relationships?
a. Learning perspective taking
b. Learning conflict resolution skills
c. Compensate for negative peer relationships
d. Experiencing sibling rivalry
a. Learning perspective taking
b. Learning conflict resolution skills
c. Compensate for negative peer relationships
d. Experiencing sibling rivalry
Chapter 05 Exam Question 12
Which peer group of children may be described as isolated from others?
a. Average
b. Neglected
c. Rejected
d. Popular
a. Average
b. Neglected
c. Rejected
d. Popular
Chapter 05 Exam Question 11
Which peer group of children is at risk for many serious problems that include clinical depression?
a. Average
b. Neglected
c. Rejected
d. Popular
a. Average
b. Neglected
c. Rejected
d. Popular
Tuesday, May 20, 2014
Chapter 05 Exam Question 10
Which stage of friendship development is referred to as fair-weather cooperation?
a. Stage one
b. Stage two
c. Stage three
d. Stage four
a. Stage one
b. Stage two
c. Stage three
d. Stage four
Chapter 05 Exam Question 9
Genetically, males and females tend to have the same proportion of body fat to muscle fiber.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 05 Exam Question 8
The prepubertal growth spurt typically begins around age 13.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 05 Exam Question 7
Bone development in middle childhood involves changes in size and composition.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 05 Exam Question 6
School-age children do not use elementary logic to infer reality from situations.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 05 Exam Question 5
The inability to tune out distracting stimulation while performing a task is referred to as selective attention.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 05 Exam Question 4
Different temperament profiles are most prevalent at different ages.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 05 Exam Question 3
School-age children are able to acknowledge the negative and positive aspects of their self-concept.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 05 Exam Question 2
Many school-age children's critical self-assessments are a result of comparisons with older children.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Monday, May 19, 2014
Chapter 04 Exam Question 47
________ are the first set of 16 teeth that erupt, beginning in infancy.
a. Elementary teeth
b. Prime teeth
c. Deciduous teeth
d. Principle teeth
a. Elementary teeth
b. Prime teeth
c. Deciduous teeth
d. Principle teeth
Chapter 04 Exam Question 46
Around what age does an infant erupt his or her first teeth?
a. First couple of weeks after birth
b. Between 2 1/2 and 4 months of age
c. Between 5 and 7 1/2 months of age
d. Around the first birthday
a. First couple of weeks after birth
b. Between 2 1/2 and 4 months of age
c. Between 5 and 7 1/2 months of age
d. Around the first birthday
Chapter 04 Exam Question 45
________ refers to the elimination of unnecessary and excess neuronal connections within the brain.
a. Pruning
b. Snipping
c. Trimming
d. Sprucing
a. Pruning
b. Snipping
c. Trimming
d. Sprucing
Chapter 04 Exam Question 44
Motor acts that require the use of small muscle groups and hand-eye coordination are referred to as __________.
a. Fine motor skills
b. Precise motor skills
c. Coarse motor skills
d. Gross motor skills
a. Fine motor skills
b. Precise motor skills
c. Coarse motor skills
d. Gross motor skills
Chapter 04 Exam Question 43
Motor acts that require the use of large muscle groups are referred to as __________.
a. Fine motor skills
b. Precise motor skills
c. Coarse motor skills
d. Gross motor skills
a. Fine motor skills
b. Precise motor skills
c. Coarse motor skills
d. Gross motor skills
Chapter 04 Exam Question 42
About ________ basic patterns of scribbling have been catalogued and described.
a. Ten
b. Twenty
c. Thirty
d. Forty
a. Ten
b. Twenty
c. Thirty
d. Forty
Chapter 04 Exam Question 41
Approximately ________ of all preschool-age children in the U.S. are obese.
a. 4.8 percent
b. 8.9 percent
c. 12.4 percent
d. 15.3 percent
a. 4.8 percent
b. 8.9 percent
c. 12.4 percent
d. 15.3 percent
Chapter 04 Exam Question 40
What is the first stage to understanding illness in early childhood?
a. Contagion
b. Phenomenism
c. Contamination
d. Internalization
a. Contagion
b. Phenomenism
c. Contamination
d. Internalization
Chapter 04 Exam Question 39
Approximately how many children and adolescents suffer from a mental disorder?
a. One out of every 100 children
b. One out of every 25 children
c. One out of every 10 children
d. One out of every 5 children
a. One out of every 100 children
b. One out of every 25 children
c. One out of every 10 children
d. One out of every 5 children
Chapter 04 Exam Question 38
What is the second stage to understanding illness in early childhood?
a. Contagion
b. Phenomenism
c. Contamination
d. Internalization
a. Contagion
b. Phenomenism
c. Contamination
d. Internalization
Chapter 04 Exam Question 37
Approximately how many children suffer from ADHD?
a. 1 percent of all children
b. 5 percent of all children
c. 10 percent of all children
d. 20 percent of all children
a. 1 percent of all children
b. 5 percent of all children
c. 10 percent of all children
d. 20 percent of all children
Chapter 04 Exam Question 36
Approximately what percentage of children in the U.S. lives in counties with polluted air?
a. 15 percent
b. 35 percent
c. 55 percent
d. 85 percent
a. 15 percent
b. 35 percent
c. 55 percent
d. 85 percent
Sunday, May 18, 2014
Chapter 04 Exam Question 35
Approximately what percentage of children in the U.S. lives in communities that fail to meet drinking water health standards?
a. 1 percent
b. 5 percent
c. 8 percent
d. 10 percent
a. 1 percent
b. 5 percent
c. 8 percent
d. 10 percent
Chapter 04 Exam Question 34
_______ is the belief of young children that all things, including objects, are alive.
a. Centering
b. Conservation
c. Irreversibility
d. Animism
a. Centering
b. Conservation
c. Irreversibility
d. Animism
Chapter 04 Exam Question 33
Approximately what percentage of children in the U.S., under the age of six, lives in poverty?
a. 10 percent
b. 20 percent
c. 30 percent
d. 40 percent
a. 10 percent
b. 20 percent
c. 30 percent
d. 40 percent
Chapter 04 Exam Question 32
___________ is the inability of young children to understand that some processes and operations can be inverted in sequence.
a. Centering
b. Conservation
c. Irreversibility
d. Animism
a. Centering
b. Conservation
c. Irreversibility
d. Animism
Chapter 04 Exam Question 31
_____________ is a cognitive trait in early childhood that limits information-processing to only one aspect or characteristic.
a. Centering
b. Conservation
c. Irreversibility
d. Animism
a. Centering
b. Conservation
c. Irreversibility
d. Animism
Chapter 04 Exam Question 30
______________ is the understanding that the essential characteristics of something are preserved even though they are rearranged in different ways or seen from a different vantage point.
vantage point.
a. Centering
b. Conservation
c. Irreversibility
d. Animism
vantage point.
a. Centering
b. Conservation
c. Irreversibility
d. Animism
Chapter 04 Exam Question 29
___________________ occurs when one sees a relationship between two objects or events, when in fact no relationship exists.
a. Transductive reasoning
b. Precausal thinking
c. Pre-scientific thinking
d. Illusory reasoning
a. Transductive reasoning
b. Precausal thinking
c. Pre-scientific thinking
d. Illusory reasoning
Chapter 04 Exam Question 28
________ is a type of logic unique to young children and based on intuition rather than fact.
a. Transductive reasoning
b. Precausal thinking
c. Pre-scientific thinking
d. Illusory reasoning
a. Transductive reasoning
b. Precausal thinking
c. Pre-scientific thinking
d. Illusory reasoning
Chapter 04 Exam Question 27
Disorders in which a person struggles to produce appropriate and clear speech
a. Communicative disorders
b. Voice disorders
c. Fluency disorders
d. Articulation disorders
a. Communicative disorders
b. Voice disorders
c. Fluency disorders
d. Articulation disorders
Chapter 04 Exam Question 26
Disorders that involve persistent difficulties with the quality of voice
a. Communicative disorders
b. Voice disorders
c. Fluency disorders
d. Articulation disorders
a. Communicative disorders
b. Voice disorders
c. Fluency disorders
d. Articulation disorders
Chapter 04 Exam Question 25
Theorist who developed the concept of a zone of proximal development
a. Vygotsky
b. Piaget
c. Erikson
d. Wellman
a. Vygotsky
b. Piaget
c. Erikson
d. Wellman
Chapter 04 Exam Question 24
Engaging in a common activity and interacting with others is what type of play?
a. Parallel play
b. Associative play
c. Cooperative play
d. None of the above
a. Parallel play
b. Associative play
c. Cooperative play
d. None of the above
Chapter 04 Exam Question 23
Playing alongside others who are doing the same or a different activity is what type of play?
a. Parallel play
b. Associative play
c. Cooperative play
d. None of the above
a. Parallel play
b. Associative play
c. Cooperative play
d. None of the above
Friday, May 16, 2014
Chapter 04 Exam Question 22
The integration of several children into group play where different roles are assumed is what type of play?
a. Parallel play
b. Associative play
c. Cooperative play
d. None of the above
a. Parallel play
b. Associative play
c. Cooperative play
d. None of the above
Chapter 04 Exam Question 21
What is physically active play called?
a. Parallel play
b. Associative play
c. Cooperative play
d. None of the above
a. Parallel play
b. Associative play
c. Cooperative play
d. None of the above
Chapter 04 Exam Question 20
What type of play involves observing others at play?
a. Unoccupied play
b. Solitary play
c. Onlooker play
d. Modeling play
a. Unoccupied play
b. Solitary play
c. Onlooker play
d. Modeling play
Chapter 04 Exam Question 19
What type of play seems random and without purpose?
a. Unoccupied play
b. Solitary play
c. Onlooker play
d. Modeling play
a. Unoccupied play
b. Solitary play
c. Onlooker play
d. Modeling play
Chapter 04 Exam Question 18
What type of play involves children playing alone and/or independently of others?
a. Unoccupied play
b. Solitary play
c. Onlooker play
d. Modeling play
a. Unoccupied play
b. Solitary play
c. Onlooker play
d. Modeling play
Chapter 04 Exam Question 17
Parenting style in which parents are affectionate, but display little discipline.
a. Authoritarian parenting style
b. Permissive parenting style
c. Rejecting-neglecting parenting style
d. Authoritative parenting style
a. Authoritarian parenting style
b. Permissive parenting style
c. Rejecting-neglecting parenting style
d. Authoritative parenting style
Chapter 04 Exam Question 16
Parenting style in which parents are both affectionate and use discipline.
a. Authoritarian parenting style
b. Permissive parenting style
c. Rejecting-neglecting parenting style
d. Authoritative parenting style
a. Authoritarian parenting style
b. Permissive parenting style
c. Rejecting-neglecting parenting style
d. Authoritative parenting style
Chapter 04 Exam Question 15
Parenting style in which parents use discipline, but display little affection.
a. Authoritarian parenting style
b. Permissive parenting style
c. Rejecting-neglecting parenting style
d. Authoritative parenting style
a. Authoritarian parenting style
b. Permissive parenting style
c. Rejecting-neglecting parenting style
d. Authoritative parenting style
Chapter 04 Exam Question 14
Parenting style in which parents display neither discipline nor affection.
a. Authoritarian parenting style
b. Permissive parenting style
c. Rejecting-neglecting parenting style
d. Authoritative parenting style
a. Authoritarian parenting style
b. Permissive parenting style
c. Rejecting-neglecting parenting style
d. Authoritative parenting style
Chapter 04 Exam Question 13
According to Erikson, an attitude of feeling shame and remorse.
a. Dishonor
b. Disgrace
c. Guilt
d. Indignity
a. Dishonor
b. Disgrace
c. Guilt
d. Indignity
Chapter 04 Exam Question 12
According to Erikson, an attitude of feeling that one's inner self is exposed as being flawed in some manner.
a. Shame
b. Ignominy
c. Humiliation
d. Indignity
a. Shame
b. Ignominy
c. Humiliation
d. Indignity
Thursday, May 15, 2014
Chapter 04 Exam Question 11
According to Erikson, an attitude of a feeling of confidence.
a. Volition
b. Motivation
c. Aspiration
d. Initiative
a. Volition
b. Motivation
c. Aspiration
d. Initiative
Chapter 04 Exam Question 10
Psychomotor medication is any medication capable of altering affect, cognition, or behavior.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 04 Exam Question 9
Preschool-children grow at half the rate they did during infancy.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 04 Exam Question 8
90 percent of U.S. children visit the dentist at least once a year.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 04 Exam Question 7
A characteristic of preoperational thought is egocentrism.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 04 Exam Question 6
Worldwide, approximately 1400 children are infected with HIV everyday.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 04 Exam Question 5
Preschool children have not yet learned the strategy of rehearsal for learning something.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 04 Exam Question 4
Divorce does not seem to have an impact on children during early childhood.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 04 Exam Question 1
In general, children's whose parents use an authoritative parenting style seem to have the best developmental outcomes.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Wednesday, May 14, 2014
Chapter 03 Exam Question 50
The part that takes information from the neuron away to be sent to other neurons
a. Cell body
b. Dendrites
c. Axon
d. None of the above
a. Cell body
b. Dendrites
c. Axon
d. None of the above
Chapter 03 Exam Question 49
The part of a neuron that contains the parts of the cell to keep it alive and functioning
a. Cell body
b. Dendrites
c. Axon
d. None of the above
a. Cell body
b. Dendrites
c. Axon
d. None of the above
Chapter 03 Exam Question 48
The part of a neuron that receives information from other neurons
a. Cell body
b. Dendrites
c. Axon
d. None of the above
a. Cell body
b. Dendrites
c. Axon
d. None of the above
Chapter 03 Exam Question 47
Crawling or creeping backwards, using the buttocks rather than the hands and knees
a. Crawling
b. Creeping
c. Hitching
d. Cruising
a. Crawling
b. Creeping
c. Hitching
d. Cruising
Chapter 03 Exam Question 46
Chemical messenger(s) that carry information to other neurons
a. Cell body
b. Dendrites
c. Axon
d. None of the above
a. Cell body
b. Dendrites
c. Axon
d. None of the above
Chapter 03 Exam Question 45
Locomotion by moving the hands and knees with the abdomen off the surface
a. Crawling
b. Creeping
c. Hitching
d. Cruising
a. Crawling
b. Creeping
c. Hitching
d. Cruising
Chapter 03 Exam Question 44
Walking using the assistance of objects or people
a. Crawling
b. Creeping
c. Hitching
d. Cruising
a. Crawling
b. Creeping
c. Hitching
d. Cruising
Chapter 03 Exam Question 43
Locomotion with the abdomen on a surface
a. Crawling
b. Creeping
c. Hitching
d. Cruising
a. Crawling
b. Creeping
c. Hitching
d. Cruising
Chapter 03 Exam Question 42
Between birth and the first birthday, how much does an infant's weight increase?
a. Doubles
b. Triples
c. Quadruples
d. There is no general rule about weight gain the first
a. Doubles
b. Triples
c. Quadruples
d. There is no general rule about weight gain the first
Chapter 03 Exam Question 41
When an infant uses the palm and the fourth and fifth fingers to pick up something, it is referred to as the _________.
a. Palmar grasp
b. Radial grasp
c. Ulnar grasp
d. Pincer grasp
a. Palmar grasp
b. Radial grasp
c. Ulnar grasp
d. Pincer grasp
Tuesday, May 13, 2014
Chapter 03 Exam Question 40
Between birth and the first birthday, how much does an infant's height increase?
a. 15 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 40 percent
d. 50 percent
a. 15 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 40 percent
d. 50 percent
Chapter 03 Exam Question 39
12. When an infant uses the thumb and forefinger to pick up something, it is referred to as the ____________.
a. Palmar grasp
b. Radial grasp
c. Ulnar grasp
d. Pincer grasp
a. Palmar grasp
b. Radial grasp
c. Ulnar grasp
d. Pincer grasp
Chapter 03 Exam Question 38
When an infant uses the index finger and the side of the palm to pick up something, it is referred to as the ___________.
a. Palmar grasp
b. Radial grasp
c. Ulnar grasp
d. Pincer grasp
a. Palmar grasp
b. Radial grasp
c. Ulnar grasp
d. Pincer grasp
Chapter 03 Exam Question 37
When an infant uses his middle fingers and the center of the palm to pick up something, it is referred to as the _____________.
a. Palmar grasp
b. Radial grasp
c. Ulnar grasp
d. Pincer grasp
a. Palmar grasp
b. Radial grasp
c. Ulnar grasp
d. Pincer grasp
Chapter 03 Exam Question 36
What is the name of the famous experiment by Gibson and Walk that investigated depth perception in infancy?
a. The visual cliff experiment
b. The cliffhanger experiment
c. The visual slope experiment
d. The Gibson and Walk experiment
a. The visual cliff experiment
b. The cliffhanger experiment
c. The visual slope experiment
d. The Gibson and Walk experiment
Chapter 03 Exam Question 35
Which of the following is NOT associated with breastfeeding?
a. Lower rates of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
b. Denser bones
c. Lower childhood cancer rates
d. Higher childhood obesity rates
a. Lower rates of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
b. Denser bones
c. Lower childhood cancer rates
d. Higher childhood obesity rates
Chapter 03 Exam Question 34
When do infants develop stereoscopic or binocular vision?
a. They are born with it.
b. 3 months of age
c. 6 months of age
d. 9 months of age
a. They are born with it.
b. 3 months of age
c. 6 months of age
d. 9 months of age
Chapter 03 Exam Question 33
What is the peak age range for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome deaths?
a. Birth to two months
b. Two to four months
c. Four to six months
d. Six to eight months
Chapter 03 Exam Question 32
How many substages are there in the sensorimotor stage?
a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Eight
a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Eight
Chapter 03 Exam Question 31
_________ are memories that are unconscious but still influence our behavior.
a. Explicit memories
b. Implicit memories
c. Unconscious memories
d. Subconscious memories
a. Explicit memories
b. Implicit memories
c. Unconscious memories
d. Subconscious memories
Saturday, May 10, 2014
Chapter 03 Exam Question 30
_____________ are memories of which we are conscious.
a. Explicit memories
b. Implicit memories
c. Conscious memories
d. Subconscious memories
a. Explicit memories
b. Implicit memories
c. Conscious memories
d. Subconscious memories
Chapter 03 Exam Question 29
The ability to express meaning through language.
a. Phonemes
b. Morphemes
c. Syntax
d. Semantics
a. Phonemes
b. Morphemes
c. Syntax
d. Semantics
Chapter 03 Exam Question 28
Which of the following is NOT a basic process in information processing?
a. Association
b. Recognition
c. Imitation
d. Language
a. Association
b. Recognition
c. Imitation
d. Language
Chapter 03 Exam Question 27
Meaningful units of speech.
a. Phonemes
b. Morphemes
c. Syntax
d. Semantics
a. Phonemes
b. Morphemes
c. Syntax
d. Semantics
Chapter 03 Exam Question 26
Ability to adjust speech in socially and culturally appropriate ways.
a. Phonemes
b. Morphemes
c. Syntax
d. Pragmatics
a. Phonemes
b. Morphemes
c. Syntax
d. Pragmatics
Chapter 03 Exam Question 25
Simplest and most elementary sounds in speech, or the building blocks of speech.
a. Phonemes
b. Morphemes
c. Syntax
d. Semantics
a. Phonemes
b. Morphemes
c. Syntax
d. Semantics
Chapter 03 Exam Question 24
_______ comprises the rules for making grammatical sentences.
a. Phonemes
b. Morphemes
c. Syntax
d. Semantics
a. Phonemes
b. Morphemes
c. Syntax
d. Semantics
Chapter 02 Exam Question 23
___________________ is the theorized innate language structure that allows us to master language easily referred.
a. Language acquisition device
b. Language acquirement device
c. Language attainment device
d. Language achievement device
a. Language acquisition device
b. Language acquirement device
c. Language attainment device
d. Language achievement device
Friday, May 9, 2014
Chapter 03 Exam Question 22
Referring to a child limiting the meaning of the word too narrowly.
a. Underlaps
b. Underextension
c. Overextension
d. Overlaps
a. Underlaps
b. Underextension
c. Overextension
d. Overlaps
Chapter 03 Exam Question 21
Referring to a child applying the meaning of a word too broadly.
a. Underlaps
b. Underextension
c. Overextension
d. Overlaps
a. Underlaps
b. Underextension
c. Overextension
d. Overlaps
Chapter 03 Exam Question 20
Which of the following is NOT a primary emotion?
a. Joy
b. Fear
c. Guilt
d. Distress
a. Joy
b. Fear
c. Guilt
d. Distress
Chapter 03 Exam Question 19
What percentage of infants has a secure attachment style?
a. 5 - 10 percent
b. 10 - 15 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 60 - 65 percent
a. 5 - 10 percent
b. 10 - 15 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 60 - 65 percent
Chapter 03 Exam Question 18
Which of the following is NOT a secondary emotion?
a. Distress
b. Guilt
c. Pride
d. Embarrassment
a. Distress
b. Guilt
c. Pride
d. Embarrassment
Chapter 03 Exam Question 17
What percentage of infants has an avoidant-insecure attachment style?
a. 5 - 10 percent
b. 10 - 15 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 60 - 65 percent
a. 5 - 10 percent
b. 10 - 15 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 60 - 65 percent
Chapter 03 Exam Question 16
What percentage of infants has a preoccupied-insecure attachment style?
a. 5 - 10 percent
b. 10 - 15 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 60 - 65 percent
a. 5 - 10 percent
b. 10 - 15 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 60 - 65 percent
Chapter 03 Exam Question 15
What percentage of infants has a disorganized/disoriented attachment style?
a. 5 - 10 percent
b. 10 - 15 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 60 - 65 percent
a. 5 - 10 percent
b. 10 - 15 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 60 - 65 percent
Chapter 03 Exam Question 14
Self-recognition is measurable around _________ of age.
a. Six months
b. Nine months
c. 12 months
d. 15 months
a. Six months
b. Nine months
c. 12 months
d. 15 months
Chapter 03 Exam Question 13
_________ play entails two toddlers playing side by side, occasionally observing each other, but not interacting with each other.
a. Parallel
b. Analogous
c. Corresponding
d. Observational
a. Parallel
b. Analogous
c. Corresponding
d. Observational
Chapter 03 Exam Question 12
Cooperative play begins around the age of:
a. 12 months
b. 18 months
c. 24 months
d. 36 months
a. 12 months
b. 18 months
c. 24 months
d. 36 months
Chapter 03 Exam Question 11
Development of an attitude of _________ is a primary task of psychosocial development in infancy.
a. Generativity
b. Basic trust
c. Identity
d. Industry
a. Generativity
b. Basic trust
c. Identity
d. Industry
Thursday, May 8, 2014
Chapter 03 Exam Question 10
The cephalocaudal growth pattern is when changes occur in the head region of the body, both internally and externally, in advance of those occurring toward the abdominal region.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 03 Exam Question 9
The cephalocaudal growth pattern is when changes happen first in the center, innermost area of the body and then move outward to ends of extremities.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 03 Exam Question 8
Hormones are the chemical messengers that carry information to other neurons.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 03 Exam Question 7
Myelination insulates the axon and speeds up message transmission.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 03 Exam Question 6
While the newborn is born with most of the neurons he or she will ever have, the number of synapses increases significantly during infancy.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 03 Exam Question 5
The brain achieves 10 percent of its adult weight by birth.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 03 Exam Question 4
Approximately 2/3 of women breastfeed while in the hospital, with about 1/5 still breastfeeding six months later.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 03 Exam Question 3
Structured baby exercise is necessary for optimal infant development.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 03 Exam Question 2
The inability to remember one's infancy is referred to as infantile amnesia.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 03 Exam Question 1
Erikson proposed that individuals establish a sense of autonomy versus shame and doubt between 18 months and three years of age.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 02 Exam Question 48
A collection of genes contained within a cell nucleus; the total number per cell is constant for each species, with humans having 46 in each cell, except for the gametes, which have 23.
a. Autosomes
b. Chromosomes
c. DNA
d. Sex chromosomes
a. Autosomes
b. Chromosomes
c. DNA
d. Sex chromosomes
Chapter 02 Exam Question 47
A single chromosome; any one of the 46 chromosomes found in the nucleus of a human cell.
a. Autosomes
b. Chromosomes
c. DNA
d. Sex chromosomes
a. Autosomes
b. Chromosomes
c. DNA
d. Sex chromosomes
Chapter 02 Exam Question 46
The basic agents of heredity from one generation of humans to the next.
a. Autosomes b
b. Chromosomes
c. Genes
d. DNA
a. Autosomes b
b. Chromosomes
c. Genes
d. DNA
Wednesday, May 7, 2014
Chapter 02 Exam Question 45
The 23rd pair of chromosomes that determine a person's gender.
a. Autosomes
b. Chromosomes
c. DNA
d. Sex chromosomes
a. Autosomes
b. Chromosomes
c. DNA
d. Sex chromosomes
Chapter 02 Exam Question 44
A complex molecule composed of four basic nucleotides that is the carrier of genetic inheritance.
a. Autosomes
b. Chromosomes
c. DNA
d. Sex chromosomes
a. Autosomes
b. Chromosomes
c. DNA
d. Sex chromosomes
Chapter 02 Exam Question 43
A disorder or disease that develops due to a gene mutation, chromosomal problem, or other genetic factor.
a. Inherited disorder
b. Chromosomal disorder
c. Multifactorial disorder
d. None of the above
a. Inherited disorder
b. Chromosomal disorder
c. Multifactorial disorder
d. None of the above
Chapter 02 Exam Question 42
A disorder due to a chromosomal abnormality or defect.
a. Inherited disorder
b. Chromosomal disorder
c. Multifactorial disorder
d. None of the above
a. Inherited disorder
b. Chromosomal disorder
c. Multifactorial disorder
d. None of the above
Chapter 02 Exam Question 41
A disorder that results from the interaction of genetics with the environment.
a. Inherited disorder
b. Chromosomal disorder
c. Multifactorial disorder
d. None of the above
a. Inherited disorder
b. Chromosomal disorder
c. Multifactorial disorder
d. None of the above
Chapter 02 Exam Question 40
An environment in which the child elicits certain environments or behaviors due to his or her genetics.
a. Active genotype-environment correlation
b. Evocative genotype-environment correlation
c. Passive genotype-environment correlation
d. None of the above
a. Active genotype-environment correlation
b. Evocative genotype-environment correlation
c. Passive genotype-environment correlation
d. None of the above
Chapter 02 Exam Question 39
An environment in which the child passively receives an environment.
a. Active genotype-environment correlation
b. Evocative genotype-environment correlation
c. Passive genotype-environment correlation
d. None of the above
a. Active genotype-environment correlation
b. Evocative genotype-environment correlation
c. Passive genotype-environment correlation
d. None of the above
Chapter 02 Exam Question 38
An environment that the child seeks due to genetic preferences.
a. Active genotype-environment correlation
b. Evocative genotype-environment correlation
c. Passive genotype-environment correlation
d. None of the above
a. Active genotype-environment correlation
b. Evocative genotype-environment correlation
c. Passive genotype-environment correlation
d. None of the above
Chapter 02 Exam Question 37
The phase of prenatal development that begins at conception and ends with implantation into the uterus (around 14 days).
a. Germinal period
b. Embryonic period
c. Fetal period
d. First trimester
a. Germinal period
b. Embryonic period
c. Fetal period
d. First trimester
Chapter 02 Exam Question 36
The two weeks after conception until around eight weeks after conception.
a. Germinal period
b. Embryonic period
c. Fetal period
d. Second trimester
a. Germinal period
b. Embryonic period
c. Fetal period
d. Second trimester
Chapter 02 Exam Question 35
The phase of prenatal development that spans from eight weeks after conception to birth (at around 40 weeks).
a. Germinal period
b. Embryonic period
c. Fetal period
d. Third trimester
a. Germinal period
b. Embryonic period
c. Fetal period
d. Third trimester
Chapter 02 Exam Question 34
A fine down-like hair covering the baby's body.
a. Quickening
b. Lanugo
c. Vernix caseosa
d. Toxemia
a. Quickening
b. Lanugo
c. Vernix caseosa
d. Toxemia
Chapter 02 Exam Question 33
The first detection by mother of movements made by a fetus.
a. Quickening
b. Lanugo
c. Vernix caseosa
d. Toxemia
a. Quickening
b. Lanugo
c. Vernix caseosa
d. Toxemia
Monday, May 5, 2014
Chapter 02 Exam Question 32
A thick cold cream substance covering the baby's skin that serves to protect the skin and lubricate the fetus for passage through the birth canal.
a. Quickening
b. Lanugo
c. Vernix caseosa
d. Toxemia
a. Quickening
b. Lanugo
c. Vernix caseosa
d. Toxemia
Chapter 02 Exam Question 31
The point in prenatal development where the baby stands a chance of surviving outside of the womb.
a. Age of survival
b. Age of arrival
c. Age of thriving
d. Age of viability
a. Age of survival
b. Age of arrival
c. Age of thriving
d. Age of viability
Chapter 02 Exam Question 30
An acute hypertensive disease of pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure, retention of body fluids, and the presence of protein in the urine.
a. Quickening
b. Lanugo
c. Vernix caseosa
d. Toxemia
a. Quickening
b. Lanugo
c. Vernix caseosa
d. Toxemia
Chapter 02 Exam Question 29
The withdrawal of a sample of amniotic fluid (which includes the baby's sloughed of skin cells) from the mother's uterus.
a. Amniocentesis
b. Chorionic villus sampling
c. Umbilical fluid sampling
d. Amniotic sac sampling
a. Amniocentesis
b. Chorionic villus sampling
c. Umbilical fluid sampling
d. Amniotic sac sampling
Chapter 02 Exam Question 28
A procedure by which chorionic villi (hairlike structures that are the predecessors of the placenta) are removed and analyzed to determine if genetic disease is present.
a. Amniocentesis
b. Chorionic villus sampling
c. Umbilical fluid sampling
d. Amniotic sac sampling
a. Amniocentesis
b. Chorionic villus sampling
c. Umbilical fluid sampling
d. Amniotic sac sampling
Chapter 02 Exam Question 27
Which stage of labor is typically the longest?
a. First stage of labor
b. Second stage of labor
c. Third stage of labor
d. Fourth stage of labor
a. First stage of labor
b. Second stage of labor
c. Third stage of labor
d. Fourth stage of labor
Chapter 02 Exam Question 26
During which stage of labor is the placenta and afterbirth delivered?
a. First stage of labor
b. Second stage of labor
c. Third stage of labor
d. Fourth stage of labor
a. First stage of labor
b. Second stage of labor
c. Third stage of labor
d. Fourth stage of labor
Chapter 02 Exam Question 25
During which stage of labor is the baby born?
a. First stage of labor
b. Second stage of labor
c. Third stage of labor
d. Fourth stage of labor
a. First stage of labor
b. Second stage of labor
c. Third stage of labor
d. Fourth stage of labor
Chapter 02 Exam Question 24
During which stage of labor is the cervix dilating to 10 centimeters?
a. First stage of labor
b. Second stage of labor
c. Third stage of labor
d. Fourth stage of labor
a. First stage of labor
b. Second stage of labor
c. Third stage of labor
d. Fourth stage of labor
Chapter 02 Exam Question 23
What are the practice contractions by the uterus called?
a. Beesley-Hinks contractions
b. Belmont-Hines contractions
c. Braxton-Hicks contractions
d. The uterus does not have practice
a. Beesley-Hinks contractions
b. Belmont-Hines contractions
c. Braxton-Hicks contractions
d. The uterus does not have practice
Chapter 02 Exam Question 22
This is the desired position for labor and delivery.
a. Transverse presentation
b. Breech presentation
c. Engaged presentation
d. Cephalic presentation
a. Transverse presentation
b. Breech presentation
c. Engaged presentation
d. Cephalic presentation
Saturday, May 3, 2014
Chapter 02 Exam Question 21
A baby is considered premature when he/she is less than 37 weeks old and weight less than ________ pounds.
a. 5 1/2
b. 6
c. 6 1/2
d. 7
a. 5 1/2
b. 6
c. 6 1/2
d. 7
Chapter 02 Exam Question 20
When a woman is afraid to be left alone with the baby and has thoughts of hurting herself or the baby.
a. Baby blues
b. Postpartum depression
c. Postpartum psychosis
d. Schizophrenia
a. Baby blues
b. Postpartum depression
c. Postpartum psychosis
d. Schizophrenia
Chapter 02 Exam Question 19
The lubricating cream-like substance that has formed during the fetal period.
a. Vernix
b. Colostrum
c. Meconium
d. None of the above
a. Vernix
b. Colostrum
c. Meconium
d. None of the above
Chapter 02 Exam Question 18
The first liquid secreted by the mammary glands, full of antibodies and nutrition.
a. Vernix
b. Colostrum
c. Meconium
d. None of the above
a. Vernix
b. Colostrum
c. Meconium
d. None of the above
Chapter 02 Exam Question 17
This is a searching reflex motion that helps the neonate to locate a breast or bottle nipple that occurs when the baby's cheeks are stroked or the corner of its mouth is touched.
a. Sucking reflex
b. Rooting reflex
c. Moro reflex
d. Babinski reflex
a. Sucking reflex
b. Rooting reflex
c. Moro reflex
d. Babinski reflex
Chapter 02 Exam Question 16
A newborns first bowel movement.
a. Vernix
b. Colostrum
c. Meconium
d. None of the above
a. Vernix
b. Colostrum
c. Meconium
d. None of the above
Chapter 02 Exam Question 15
This reflex is associated with a sudden change in movement or support of the newborn. If a neonate is raised or lowered suddenly or if support of its head is released, the baby responds by raising its arms upward very quickly and curling its fingers. Moving of the legs accompanies these reflex motions.
a. Sucking reflex
b. Rooting reflex
c. Moro reflex
d. Babinski reflex
a. Sucking reflex
b. Rooting reflex
c. Moro reflex
d. Babinski reflex
Chapter 02 Exam Question 14
This reflex occurs when the sole of the baby's foot is stroked along the outer edge. In response, the neonate's toes spread wide in a fanning action, relax somewhat, curl forward tightly closed, and return to their original position.
a. Sucking reflex
b. Rooting reflex
c. Moro reflex
d. Babinski reflex
a. Sucking reflex
b. Rooting reflex
c. Moro reflex
d. Babinski reflex
Chapter 02 Exam Question 13
The resisting of physical handling, crying inconsolably, and showing irregular sleeping and eating patterns.
a. Anxious temperament
b. Difficult temperament
c. Easy temperament
d. Slow-to-warm-up temperament
a. Anxious temperament
b. Difficult temperament
c. Easy temperament
d. Slow-to-warm-up temperament
Chapter 02 Exam Question 12
The display of quiet activity levels, somewhat fussy, and wary around others and situations.
a. Anxious temperament
b. Difficult temperament
c. Easy temperament
d. Slow-to-warm-up temperament
a. Anxious temperament
b. Difficult temperament
c. Easy temperament
d. Slow-to-warm-up temperament
Chapter 02 Exam Question 11
A baby who is adaptable, cheerful and happy, and responsive to others and situations:
a. Anxious temperament
b. Difficult temperament
c. Easy temperament
d. Slow-to-warm-up temperament
a. Anxious temperament
b. Difficult temperament
c. Easy temperament
d. Slow-to-warm-up temperament
Friday, May 2, 2014
Chapter 02 Exam Question 10
The total genetic makeup of an individual is referred to as the pheonotype.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 02 Exam Question 9
The traits and characteristics such as hair color, skin color, and behavior that can be observed is referred to as the phenotype.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 02 Exam Question 8
The splitting of each chromosome in the body cell to form a new pair is referred to as mitosis.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 02 Exam Question 7
The process by which the gametes (sperm and ova) are produced in the male testicles and the female ovaries is referred to as mitosis.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 02 Exam Question 6
Visual acuity refers to the sharpness or clarity of vision.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 02 Exam Question 5
Incomplete dominance occurs when one allele is not completely dominant over the second allele.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 02 Exam Question 4
Codominance occurs when both alleles are NOT fully expressed.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 02 Exam Question 3
Genetic imprinting is the repression or expression of a gene or chromosome in an offspring that is dependent upon which parent it is inherited from.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 02 Exam Question 2
Adaptive reflexes refer to several reflexes present at birth that seem to be relics of adaptive experiences sometime in our vast evolutionary past.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Chapter 02 Exam Question 1
Newborns spend about 50 percent of their sleeping hours in REM sleep.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Thursday, May 1, 2014
Chapter 01 Exam Question 68
What does the study of human development seek to address?
a. Describing human development
b. Understanding human development
c. Explaining human development
d. All of the above
a. Describing human development
b. Understanding human development
c. Explaining human development
d. All of the above
Chapter 01 Exam Question 67
What careers can a person with a degree in human development typically seek?
a. Careers in education
b. Careers in government
c. Careers in non-profit organizations
d. All of the above
a. Careers in education
b. Careers in government
c. Careers in non-profit organizations
d. All of the above
Chapter 01 Exam Question 66
Approximately how many colleges and universities in the United States offer a major in human development or human development and family studies leading to a bachelor's degree?
a. Less than 50
b. 75
c. 100
d. Over 150
a. Less than 50
b. 75
c. 100
d. Over 150
Chapter 01 Exam Question 65
Which of the following is NOT a reason to study human development?
a. To become better judges of people's lives and decisions
b. To understand developmental delays
c. To develop social policy
d. To greater appreciate our own life history
a. To become better judges of people's lives and decisions
b. To understand developmental delays
c. To develop social policy
d. To greater appreciate our own life history
Chapter 01 Exam Question 64
The essence of the human nature philosophical issue involves which of the following?
a. The degree to which genetics dictates development
b. The issue of whether humans are born basically good, bad, or tabularasa's
c. The issue of whether our development is mostly universal or mostly culturally specific
d. The degree to which the environment dictates development
a. The degree to which genetics dictates development
b. The issue of whether humans are born basically good, bad, or tabularasa's
c. The issue of whether our development is mostly universal or mostly culturally specific
d. The degree to which the environment dictates development
Chapter 01 Exam Question 63
The idea that development occurs in distinct stages reflects which philosophical position?
a. Development is active
b. Development is passive
c. Development is continuous
d. Development is discontinuous
a. Development is active
b. Development is passive
c. Development is continuous
d. Development is discontinuous
Chapter 01 Exam Question 62
The idea that all healthy humans follow a similar sequence in motor skill development reflects which philosophical position?
a. Development is continuous
b. Development is discontinuous
c. Development is universal
d. Development is relativistic
a. Development is continuous
b. Development is discontinuous
c. Development is universal
d. Development is relativistic
Chapter 01 Exam Question 61
Which of the changes below is NOT one of the main domains of development?
a. Biological changes
b. Cognitive changes
c. Socioemotional changes
d. Sociohistorical changes
a. Biological changes
b. Cognitive changes
c. Socioemotional changes
d. Sociohistorical changes
Chapter 01 Exam Question 60
The idea that development occurs within the physical, cognitive, and socioemotional domains reflects which principle of developmental change?
a. Multidimensional
b. Multidirectional
c. Multidisciplinary
d. Context
a. Multidimensional
b. Multidirectional
c. Multidisciplinary
d. Context
Chapter 01 Exam Question 59
The idea that development includes growth, maintenance, and decline reflects which principle of developmental change?
a. Multidimensional
b. Multidirectional
c. Multidisciplinary
d. Context
a. Multidimensional
b. Multidirectional
c. Multidisciplinary
d. Context
Chapter 01 Exam Question 58
The idea that development is embedded in an environment reflects which principle of developmental change?
a. Multidimensional
b. Multidirectional
c. Multidisciplinary
d. Context
a. Multidimensional
b. Multidirectional
c. Multidisciplinary
d. Context
Chapter 01 Exam Question 57
Which of the below is NOT one of Baltes' specific contexts of development?
a. Normative age-graded influence
b. Normative history-graded influences
c. Normative gender-graded influences
d. Non-normative life event influences
a. Normative age-graded influence
b. Normative history-graded influences
c. Normative gender-graded influences
d. Non-normative life event influences
Chapter 01 Exam Question 56
What is the approximate age range for early childhood?
a. Birth to 3 years
b. One to 3 years
c. Three to 6 years
d. Five to 10 years
a. Birth to 3 years
b. One to 3 years
c. Three to 6 years
d. Five to 10 years
Chapter 01 Exam Question 55
What is the approximate age range for middle childhood?
a. Three to 6 years
b. Six to 12 years
c. Nine to 12 years
d. Ten to 13 years
a. Three to 6 years
b. Six to 12 years
c. Nine to 12 years
d. Ten to 13 years
Chapter 01 Exam Question 54
What is the approximate age range for early adulthood?
a. Eighteen to 25 years
b. Twenty to 30 years
c. Eighteen to 35 years
d. Eighteen to 39 years
a. Eighteen to 25 years
b. Twenty to 30 years
c. Eighteen to 35 years
d. Eighteen to 39 years
Chapter 01 Exam Question 53
Which of the below is NOT a conceptualization of age?
a. Historical age
b. Chronological age
c. Biological age
d. Social age
a. Historical age
b. Chronological age
c. Biological age
d. Social age
Chapter 01 Exam Question 52
Age based upon adaptive capacities in relation to one's chronological age refers to which conceptualization of age?
a. Historical age
b. Biological age
c. Psychological age
d. Social age
a. Historical age
b. Biological age
c. Psychological age
d. Social age
Chapter 01 Exam Question 51
Age based upon social norms and expectations in relation to one's chronological age refers to which conceptualization of age?
a. Historical age
b. Biological age
c. Psychological age
d. Social age
a. Historical age
b. Biological age
c. Psychological age
d. Social age
Wednesday, April 30, 2014
Chapter 01 Exam Question 50
Science is the marriage of ________ and ________ that provides a mechanism allowing for understanding the world within a system of checks and balances.
a. Rationalism and empiricism
b. Rationalism and cognizance
c. Observation and empiricism
d. Methods and empiricism
a. Rationalism and empiricism
b. Rationalism and cognizance
c. Observation and empiricism
d. Methods and empiricism
Chapter 01 Exam Question 49
_______________ is a series of steps that scientists from any field use as a process to test theories and gain knowledge within their field.
a. Field methods
b. Scientific method
c. Research guild
d. Methods guidelines
a. Field methods
b. Scientific method
c. Research guild
d. Methods guidelines
Chapter 01 Exam Question 48
A ______________ can be thought of as a collection of ideas used to explain observations.
a. Hypothesis
b. Prediction
c. Theory
d. Scientific method
a. Hypothesis
b. Prediction
c. Theory
d. Scientific method
Chapter 01 Exam Question 47
________________ is an educated guess that is guided by theory, typically in an if-then format, and testable.
a. Hypothesis
b. Operational definition
c. Variable
d. Scientific method
a. Hypothesis
b. Operational definition
c. Variable
d. Scientific method
Chapter 01 Exam Question 46
An operational definition
a. Is the same thing as a prediction
b. Is the same thing as reliability
c. Is the same thing a validity
d. Describes specifically how a variable will be measured
a. Is the same thing as a prediction
b. Is the same thing as reliability
c. Is the same thing a validity
d. Describes specifically how a variable will be measured
Chapter 01 Exam Question 45
Which approach to research focuses upon describing human development?
a. Descriptive research
b. Perceptive research
c. Correlational research
d. Experimental research
a. Descriptive research
b. Perceptive research
c. Correlational research
d. Experimental research
Chapter 01 Exam Question 44
Which approach to research focuses upon understanding relationships between variables?
a. Descriptive research
b. Perceptive research
c. Correlational research
d. Experimental research
a. Descriptive research
b. Perceptive research
c. Correlational research
d. Experimental research
Chapter 01 Exam Question 43
Which approach to research focuses upon understanding cause and effect relationships?
a. Descriptive research
b. Perceptive research
c. Correlational research
d. Experimental research
a. Descriptive research
b. Perceptive research
c. Correlational research
d. Experimental research
Chapter 01 Exam Question 42
Studying children's naturally occurring aggressive behavior on the playground would be an example of what type of study?
a. Naturalistic study
b. Laboratory study
c. Experimental study
d. None of the above
a. Naturalistic study
b. Laboratory study
c. Experimental study
d. None of the above
Chapter 01 Exam Question 41
What type of problem may occur during descriptive research?
a. Confounding variables
b. Experimenter bias
c. Placebo effect
d. Observer bias
a. Confounding variables
b. Experimenter bias
c. Placebo effect
d. Observer bias
Tuesday, April 29, 2014
Chapter 01 Exam Question 40
What type of correlation occurs when as one variable increases, the other variable decreases?
a. Non-linear correlation
b. Positive correlation
c. Negative correlation
d. Curvilinear correlation
a. Non-linear correlation
b. Positive correlation
c. Negative correlation
d. Curvilinear correlation
Chapter 01 Exam Question 39
What type of correlation occurs when both variables increase or decrease together?
a. Non-linear correlation
b. Positive correlation
c. Negative correlation
d. Curvilinear correlation
a. Non-linear correlation
b. Positive correlation
c. Negative correlation
d. Curvilinear correlation
Chapter 01 Exam Question 38
Which type of variable is controlled or manipulated in an experimental study?
a. Dependent variable
b. Descriptive variable
c. Independent variable
d. Investigated variable
a. Dependent variable
b. Descriptive variable
c. Independent variable
d. Investigated variable
Chapter 01 Exam Question 37
Which correlation coefficient below indicates the strongest correlation?
a. +.25
b. 0
c. -.15
d. -.49
a. +.25
b. 0
c. -.15
d. -.49
Chapter 01 Exam Question 36
Which type of variable is measured or considered the outcome in an experimental study?
a. Dependent variable
b. Descriptive variable
c. Independent variable
d. Investigated variable
a. Dependent variable
b. Descriptive variable
c. Independent variable
d. Investigated variable
Chapter 01 Exam Question 35
What can be done in an experimental study to avoid experimenter bias?
a. Conduct a double-blind study
b. Conduct a differential study
c. Only study one group at a time
d. None of the above
a. Conduct a double-blind study
b. Conduct a differential study
c. Only study one group at a time
d. None of the above
Chapter 01 Exam Question 34
What type of developmental research design compares measurements or observations of some particular trait or behavior between groups of people of different ages at the same time?
a. Cohort design
b. Longitudinal design
c. Cross-sectional design
d. Microgenetic studies
a. Cohort design
b. Longitudinal design
c. Cross-sectional design
d. Microgenetic studies
Chapter 01 Exam Question 33
What type of developmental research design makes repeated measurements or observations of the same individuals over an extended period of time?
a. Cohort design
b. Longitudinal design
c. Cross-sectional design
d. Life-span design
a. Cohort design
b. Longitudinal design
c. Cross-sectional design
d. Life-span design
Chapter 01 Exam Question 32
Which of the methods below is a statistical method that allows researchers to predict one variable based on the values of the other variables.
a. Multiple regression
b. Time-series analysis
c. Descriptive statistics
d. Meta-analysis
a. Multiple regression
b. Time-series analysis
c. Descriptive statistics
d. Meta-analysis
Chapter 01 Exam Question 31
Which of the methods below is a statistical method that allows researchers to study the same variable across time?
a. Multiple regression
b. Time-series analysis
c. t-Test
d. Rank order correlation
a. Multiple regression
b. Time-series analysis
c. t-Test
d. Rank order correlation
Chapter 01 Exam Question 30
Which of the methods below is a statistical method that allows researchers to integrate the findings of many studies?
a. Multiple regression
b. Time-series analysis
c. Descriptive statistics
d. Meta-analysis
a. Multiple regression
b. Time-series analysis
c. Descriptive statistics
d. Meta-analysis
Chapter 01 Exam Question 29
__________________ can be defined as how well an individual is suited for his or her environment and the ability to survive and reproduce.
a. Fitness
b. Evolution
c. Adaptive features
d. None of the above
a. Fitness
b. Evolution
c. Adaptive features
d. None of the above
Chapter 01 Exam Question 28
_________________ is the field of inquiry that studies the biological bases of behavior patterns in animals and humans.
a. Evolutionary theory
b. Ethology
c. Ethnography
d. Behavioral theory
a. Evolutionary theory
b. Ethology
c. Ethnography
d. Behavioral theory
Chapter 01 Exam Question 27
______________ refers to any consistent, reliable pattern or plan of interaction with the environment.
a. Adaptation
b. Evolution
c. Assimilation
d. Schema
a. Adaptation
b. Evolution
c. Assimilation
d. Schema
Chapter 01 Exam Question 26
How many types of schemas did Piaget propose?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
Monday, April 28, 2014
Chapter 01 Exam Question 25
One of the best-organized and most comprehensive explanations of how human beings acquire their thought processes and problem-solving abilities was proposed by:
a. Piaget
b. Vygotsky
c. Freud
d. Darwin
a. Piaget
b. Vygotsky
c. Freud
d. Darwin
Chapter 01 Exam Question 24
______________________ are the first, rudimentary ideas about how the world functions and how the young child may operate or act to make things happen.
a. Sensorimotor schema
b. Cognitive schema
c. Formal schema
d. Preoperational schema
a. Sensorimotor schema
b. Cognitive schema
c. Formal schema
d. Preoperational schema
Chapter 01 Exam Question 23
According to Piaget, which of the processes below are the two used to modify schemas?
a. Assimilation and accommodation
b. Assimilation and adaptation
c. Accommodation and adaptation
d. Adaptation and centration
a. Assimilation and accommodation
b. Assimilation and adaptation
c. Accommodation and adaptation
d. Adaptation and centration
Chapter 01 Exam Question 22
________ is the process by which people acquire new knowledge and information and match it with or incorporate it into their existing schemas.
a. Adaptation
b. Assimilation
c. Accommodation
d. Centration
a. Adaptation
b. Assimilation
c. Accommodation
d. Centration
Chapter 01 Exam Question 21
___________________ is the range between what a child can accomplish alone and what he/she can accomplish with assistance.
a. Psychological tools
b. Zone of proximal development
c. Scaffolding
d. Mentoring
a. Psychological tools
b. Zone of proximal development
c. Scaffolding
d. Mentoring
Saturday, April 26, 2014
Chapter 01 Exam Question 20
_____________________ refers to the process of altering existing schemas in order to bring about congruence with reality.
a. Adaptation
b. Assimilation
c. Accommodation
d. Centration
a. Adaptation
b. Assimilation
c. Accommodation
d. Centration
Chapter 01 Exam Question 19
__________________ provide(s) a framework to assist a child initially learning a new skill, through small steps.
a. Psychological tools
b. Zone of proximal development
c. Scaffolding
d. Mentoring
a. Psychological tools
b. Zone of proximal development
c. Scaffolding
d. Mentoring
Chapter 01 Exam Question 18
Which of the below is NOT a general assumption in information-processing theory?
a. The term information-processing is synonymous with thinking.
b. Information-processing researchers seek to understand the specific mechanisms that allow for cognitive development.
c. Cognitive development is guided by constant self-modification in thinking.
d. Our unconscious mind plays a major role in our cognitive development.
a. The term information-processing is synonymous with thinking.
b. Information-processing researchers seek to understand the specific mechanisms that allow for cognitive development.
c. Cognitive development is guided by constant self-modification in thinking.
d. Our unconscious mind plays a major role in our cognitive development.
Chapter 01 Exam Question 17
Which component of Freud's personality structure operates according to the pleasure principle?
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Social self
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Social self
Chapter 01 Exam Question 16
Who is the founder of psychodynamic theory?
a. Adler
b. Jung
c. Freud
d. Erikson
a. Adler
b. Jung
c. Freud
d. Erikson
Chapter 01 Exam Question 15
Which component of Freud's personality structure is guided by the reality principle?
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Social self
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Social self
Chapter 01 Exam Question 14
Which component of Freud's personality structure is guided by the perfection principle?
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Social self
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Social self
Chapter 01 Exam Question 13
Which of the following is NOT a component of Freud's personality structure?
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Social self
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Social self
Chapter 01 Exam Question 12
According to Freud, development can be retarded by ______________________.
a. Fixation
b. Sublimation
c. Sleep deprivation
d. Self-analysis
a. Fixation
b. Sublimation
c. Sleep deprivation
d. Self-analysis
Chapter 01 Exam Question 11
Which neo-Freudian theorist is well-known for his/hers ideas on birth order and sibling relationships?
a. Alfred Adler
b. Carl Jung
c. Karen Horney
d. Anna Freud
a. Alfred Adler
b. Carl Jung
c. Karen Horney
d. Anna Freud
Friday, April 25, 2014
Chapter 01 Exam Question 10
Which neo-Freudian theorist altered Sigmund Freud's theory on the personality structure to include the collective unconscious, the persona, and the shadow?
a. Alfred Adler
b. Carl Jung
c. Karen Horney
d. Anna Freud
a. Alfred Adler
b. Carl Jung
c. Karen Horney
d. Anna Freud
Chapter 01 Exam Question 9
How did Erikson view personality?
a. Formed by childhood
b. Static
c. Dynamic
d. He had no view on personality
a. Formed by childhood
b. Static
c. Dynamic
d. He had no view on personality
Chapter 01 Exam Question 8
According to Erikson, a __________________ crisis is a central problem that the person is expected to master in order to make healthy progress to the next stage.
a. Psychosexual
b. Psychosocial
c. Moral
d. Sociocultural
a. Psychosexual
b. Psychosocial
c. Moral
d. Sociocultural
Chapter 01 Exam Question 7
________________________ are those who are singularly important at each particular stage of a person's psychosocial development.
a. Social others
b. Psychological others
c. Needed others
d. Significant others
a. Social others
b. Psychological others
c. Needed others
d. Significant others
Chapter 01 Exam Question 6
Maslow called the drive to achieve one's full potential:
a. Self-actualization
b. Self-motivation
c. Self-regulation
d. Self-potentiality
a. Self-actualization
b. Self-motivation
c. Self-regulation
d. Self-potentiality
Chapter 01 Exam Question 5
The two major ways that learning is believed to occur in behavioral theory are:
a. Priming and shaping
b. Reinforcing and punishing
c. Classical conditioning and operant conditioning
d. Modeling and imitation
a. Priming and shaping
b. Reinforcing and punishing
c. Classical conditioning and operant conditioning
d. Modeling and imitation
Chapter 01 Exam Question 4
Which theory proposed the idea of observational learning?
a. Ethological theory
b. Psychoanalytic theory
c. Humanistic theory
d. Social cognitive theory
a. Ethological theory
b. Psychoanalytic theory
c. Humanistic theory
d. Social cognitive theory
Chapter 01 Exam Question 3
Who developed bioecological theory?
a. Bronfenbrenner
b. Bowlby
c. Carstensen
d. Bandura
a. Bronfenbrenner
b. Bowlby
c. Carstensen
d. Bandura
Chapter 01 Exam Question 2
Bioecological theory focuses on:
a. The biological aspects of development.
b. The layers or contexts of development.
c. The similarities and differences between human development and the development of other animals.
d. The importance of cognitive processes in development.
a. The biological aspects of development.
b. The layers or contexts of development.
c. The similarities and differences between human development and the development of other animals.
d. The importance of cognitive processes in development.
Chapter 01 Exam Question 1
__________________________ describes the family as a social system.
a. Family systems theory
b. Social systems theory
c. Bioecological theory
d. Dynamics systems theory
a. Family systems theory
b. Social systems theory
c. Bioecological theory
d. Dynamics systems theory
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